Infinity isn’t a number, it’s a concept. Some infinities are bigger than others. For example, there’s an infinite amount of real values between 0 and 1 but there’s an even greater infinite amount of real values between 0 and 2.
First, we need to establish that two infinities are equal in cardinality (aka size) if all their elements can be 1:1 mapped to each other.
So, to go from the reals within [0, 1] and [0, 2], we can multiply by 2. This maps every value within [0, 1] to every value within [0, 2], so these are of the same cardinality.
Where things get interesting is the proof that the reals within [0, 1] are of greater cardinality than every integer.
Say we have an arbitrary mapping from every integer to a real within [0, 1]:
This list contains every integer, but it does not contain every real number because we can always come up with a new one by ensuring at least one digit is different in each existing real:
0-> …8… ≠ 91-> …7… ≠ 82-> …7… ≠ 83-> …9… ≠ 04-> …2… ≠ 3
⋮ ⋱
0.98803… is not within the list
Therefore, no 1:1 mapping between the integers and reals exists. Because the limiting factor is the amount of integers, the cardinality of the reals is greater than that of the integers.
“Infinity” and “number” mean different things in different contexts. In the context of set theory, its perfectly valid to talk about infinite numbers, e.g. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Aleph_number
Yes, but in that case it’s the same amount. For every real x in the first interval there is a real y=2x in the second. Also for every real y in the second interval there is a real x=y/2 in the first.
∞
Infinity isn’t a number, it’s a concept. Some infinities are bigger than others. For example, there’s an infinite amount of real values between 0 and 1 but there’s an even greater infinite amount of real values between 0 and 2.
May as well go through the proofs:
First, we need to establish that two infinities are equal in cardinality (aka size) if all their elements can be 1:1 mapped to each other.
So, to go from the reals within [0, 1] and [0, 2], we can multiply by 2. This maps every value within [0, 1] to every value within [0, 2], so these are of the same cardinality.
Where things get interesting is the proof that the reals within [0, 1] are of greater cardinality than every integer.
Say we have an arbitrary mapping from every integer to a real within [0, 1]:
0 -> 0.89236… 1 -> 0.47389… 2 -> 0.84776… 3 -> 0.18790… 4 -> 0.90542… ⋮ ⋱This list contains every integer, but it does not contain every real number because we can always come up with a new one by ensuring at least one digit is different in each existing real:
0 -> …8… ≠ 9 1 -> …7… ≠ 8 2 -> …7… ≠ 8 3 -> …9… ≠ 0 4 -> …2… ≠ 3 ⋮ ⋱ 0.98803… is not within the listTherefore, no 1:1 mapping between the integers and reals exists. Because the limiting factor is the amount of integers, the cardinality of the reals is greater than that of the integers.
This isn’t true. Both of those sets have the same cardinality as the real numbers. Measuring infinities can be weird that way.
They are both strictly larger than the rationals, though.
“Infinity” and “number” mean different things in different contexts. In the context of set theory, its perfectly valid to talk about infinite numbers, e.g. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Aleph_number
Yes, but in that case it’s the same amount. For every real x in the first interval there is a real y=2x in the second. Also for every real y in the second interval there is a real x=y/2 in the first.
oo
oh, wrong thread
∞…
shush