No the definition is technically to be partially financially supported by public funds (I.e. government or other organization)…but that wouldn’t cover tipping from private customers either so…
i don’t think there’s a misunderstanding dude. i think you’re talking past each other because you used hyperbole. you both seem to be making the same point in different words, like you got different educations and degrees or something normal like that
No the definition is technically to be partially financially supported by public funds (I.e. government or other organization)…but that wouldn’t cover tipping from private customers either so…
No, you’re just wrong here and there is no technically.
You’re misunderstanding what public funds are.
i don’t think there’s a misunderstanding dude. i think you’re talking past each other because you used hyperbole. you both seem to be making the same point in different words, like you got different educations and degrees or something normal like that
You you’re suggesting that money spent by private customers counts as “public funds”, you’re misunderstanding what public funds are.
No, a private individual does not have public funds.
Public funds are specifically a government things.
At this point I don’t think you understand the point I made.