• ExcessShiv@lemmy.dbzer0.com
    link
    fedilink
    arrow-up
    2
    arrow-down
    2
    ·
    25 days ago

    The money comes from the customer in either scenario, functionally there is no difference it flows from customer to employee regardless.

    Edit: just to be clear, I am very much against the tipping culture in the US as it only benefits the employer and leaves employees at the whim of the customers mood. But all employee salaries are paid by the customers money in the end.

      • ExcessShiv@lemmy.dbzer0.com
        link
        fedilink
        arrow-up
        0
        ·
        25 days ago

        No the definition is technically to be partially financially supported by public funds (I.e. government or other organization)…but that wouldn’t cover tipping from private customers either so…

        • HikingVet@lemmy.ca
          link
          fedilink
          arrow-up
          0
          arrow-down
          2
          ·
          25 days ago

          No, you’re just wrong here and there is no technically.

          You’re misunderstanding what public funds are.

          • MinnesotaGoddam@lemmy.world
            link
            fedilink
            English
            arrow-up
            1
            ·
            25 days ago

            i don’t think there’s a misunderstanding dude. i think you’re talking past each other because you used hyperbole. you both seem to be making the same point in different words, like you got different educations and degrees or something normal like that

          • ExcessShiv@lemmy.dbzer0.com
            link
            fedilink
            arrow-up
            0
            ·
            25 days ago

            You you’re suggesting that money spent by private customers counts as “public funds”, you’re misunderstanding what public funds are.

            • HikingVet@lemmy.ca
              link
              fedilink
              arrow-up
              0
              arrow-down
              1
              ·
              25 days ago

              No, a private individual does not have public funds.

              Public funds are specifically a government things.

              At this point I don’t think you understand the point I made.